1. In your literature, Christ is always portrayed as crucified on a stake with one nail through both hands. Yet in John 20:25, Thomas says, "Except I shall see in his hands the print of the nails". The Watchtower says it was one nail. The Bible says it was two nails, one in each hand. Which one is right - The Bible or the Watchtower Society? If the Bible is right, then why in all these years has not the Society corrected its false representation of Christ on the stake? Are you really Bereans, who search the scriptures daily?

2. Who were the translators of the New World Translation and what were their Hebrew and Greek credentials. If you do not know who they were or if they had any credentials, how can you know that your translation is accurate?

3. "In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god." (John 1:1 in the New World Translation).

Doesn't this translation contradict Deut. 32:39 "See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no god with me: I kill, and I make alive; I wound, and I heal: neither is there any that can deliver out of my hand."

If there is no god with Jehovah, how is it that Jesus is a god with Jehovah?

In John 1:1 your translation says of Jesus Christ that "the word was a god" whereas most other Bible translations read, "the Word was God" teaching the deity of the Lord Jesus.

The Greek text of John 1: 1 reads: Een arche ein ho logos, kai ho logos ein pros ton theon, kai theos ein ho logos. Jehovah's Witnesses are taught that the usage of theos ("God") without the definite article in Clause C in reference to ho logos ("the Word") is an example of a qualitative anarthrous noun, and that it therefore merely describes the quality of Christ's nature as an exalted creature, but does not apply to Him the nature of God Himself.

If such a Greek rule was correct then John 1 should be consistently translated this way -

John 1:6 "There was a man sent from a god, whose name was John.... ;

John 1:12 "...To them He gave the power to become the children of a god.... ;

John 1:13 "...Who were born, not of blood... but of a god."

No definite articles appear before the Greek word "theos" in these verses. Why is the NWT inconsistent with its own made up rules of Greek?

4. Jesus is worshiped many times in the New Testament; the worshippers are never rebuked. An angel is worshiped twice in the New Testament [Rev 19:10, 22:8-9]; the worshiped is rebuked both times. Peter is worshiped once [Acts 10:25]; the worshiped is rebuked. How is it that men or angels cannot be worshipped but Jesus can be worshipped. The Lord Jesus said to Satan in Matt 4:10, "Begone, Satan! For it is written, 'You shall worship the Lord [Jehovah] your God, and serve Him only." The word for worship in the Greek ("proskuneo") is exactly the same as word used when men worshipped Jesus. How can Jesus be worshipped if only God is to be worshipped?

5. Regarding the resurrection of Christ your literature says, "In his resurrection he was no more human. He was raised as a spirit creature. . . " (The Kingdom Is At Hand, p. 258).

Yet in John 2:19-22 before the crucifixion Jesus said, "Destroy this temple and in three days I will raise it up...He was speaking of the temple of His body." Jesus said He would raise the same body He died in.

In Luke 24:37-39 it says, "But they were terrified and affrighted, and supposed that they had seen a spirit. And he said unto them, Why are ye troubled? and why do thoughts arise in your hearts? Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have."

What is right, the Bible which says Jesus was raised not a spirit but had flesh and bones or the Watchtower literature which says that He was raised a spirit creature?

6. It is written in your book "Millions Now Living Will Never Die" (page 89.) "Therefore we may confidently expect that 1925 will mark the return of Abraham, Isaac, Jacob and the faithful prophets of old, particularly those named by the Apostle in Hebrews 11, to the condition of human perfection."

"The date 1925 is even more distinctly indicated by the Scriptures than 1914." The Watchtower 9/1/22, page 262.

"Our thought is, that 1925 is definitely settled by the Scriptures. As to Noah, the Christian now has much more upon which to base his faith than Noah had upon which to base his faith in a coming deluge." The Watchtower, page 106 4/1/23.

1925 came and went and the patriarchs did not return. How is it that if the Watchtower Society is Jehovah's organisation and mouthpiece it makes such false predictions?

"True, there have been those in times past who predicted an ‘end to the world', even announcing a specific date. Yet nothing happened. The ‘end' did not come. They were guilty of false prophesying. Why? What was missing?.. Missing from such people were God's truths and evidence that he was using and guiding them." (Awake, 10/8/68.)

By your own statements you are a false prophet. How can you be trusted?

7. In Hebrews 1:10 it is said of Jesus, "Thou, Lord, in the beginning didst lay the foundation of the earth, And the heavens are the works of Thy hands..." This is a quote from Psalm 102:24-25 which says, "I say, 'O my God, do not take me away in the midst of my days, Thy years are throughout all generations. Of old Thou didst found the earth; And the heavens are the work of Thy hands.'" Jehovah is addressed in Psalm 102 yet when it is quoted in Hebrews, it is Jesus who is addressed.

In Isaiah 44:24 it says, "Thus says the Lord, your Redeemer, and the one who formed you from the womb, "I, the Lord, am the maker of all things, Stretching out the heavens by Myself, And spreading out the earth all alone."

If God alone created the earth, who laid the foundation of the earth, Jesus or Jehovah?

8. If as you teach the title of the Lord Jesus as the "firstborn" in Col. 1:refers to first created and is not a term of pre-eminence, then how do you explain the following two verses -

Gen. 41:51-52, "And Joseph called the name of the first-born Manasseh: For, said he, God hath made me forget all my toil, and all my father’s house. And the name of the second called he Ephraim: For God hath made me fruitful in the land of my affliction"

Jer. 31:9, "...for I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is My firstborn

Is Manasseh the firstborn or Ephraim?

9 If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal "active force", why does he speak directly and refer to himself as "I" and "me" in Acts 13:2? How can a force be told an untruth or lie (Acts 5) How can a force be blasphemed? (Matt 12) The Christadelphians teach that Satan is a force, do you believe the same? If not then why not? Please apply the same principles of proving Satan is a literal person to the verses that speak of the Holy Spirit. Is there not an inconsistency in your interpretation?

10 Since the Watchtower Society claims "apostolic succession", can it trace its roots all the way back to Christ (Mt 16:18)? If so, who was it that "passed the torch of God's spirit" to C. T. Russell when he founded the organization? What was the name of this individual or individuals that were witnesses immediately before him? Name one Jehovah's witness in the 1400's, 1500's, 1600's, or 1700's.

11. In Jn 20:28, John refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy". This translates literally as "the Lord of me and THE God of me". Why does Jesus, in Jn 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why didn't Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption or a blasphemous statement?